Pituitary adenoma and neoplasm: The Daily PANCE Blueprint
A 40-year-old individual presents to your office with headaches, visual disturbances, and menstrual irregularities. On examination, you note bitemporal hemianopsia. Laboratory tests reveal elevated prolactin levels. An MRI of the brain identifies a mass in the sella turcica, consistent with a lactotroph adenoma (prolactinoma). What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Immediate Transsphenoidal Surgery
B. Dopamine Agonist Treatment
C. Radiation Therapy
D. Chemotherapy
E. Observation Only
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Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Endocrinology ⇒ Pituitary Disorders ⇒ Pituitary adenoma and neoplasm