Cardiomyopathy: The Daily PANCE Blueprint
A 55-year-old male presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of progressive dyspnea on exertion and fatigue. Physical examination reveals jugular venous distension, bilateral crackles in the lungs, and a displaced apex. An echocardiogram shows left ventricular dilation with reduced ejection fraction. What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
B. Ischemic Heart Disease
C. Constrictive Pericarditis
D. Mitral Valve Prolapse
E. Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
Answer and topic summary
The answer is B. Ischemic Heart Disease
Ischemic heart disease is the most common underlying cause of dilated cardiomyopathy. The patient’s symptoms and echocardiogram findings are consistent with dilated cardiomyopathy, which often results from chronic ischemic injury to the myocardium.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy would typically present with asymmetric septal hypertrophy and preserved or increased ejection fraction, not dilation and reduced ejection fraction.
C. Constrictive pericarditis would typically present with signs of right heart failure and pericardial thickening on imaging, not left ventricular dilation.
D. Mitral valve prolapse might lead to mitral regurgitation but would not typically cause left ventricular dilation with reduced ejection fraction as seen in dilated cardiomyopathy.
E. Restrictive cardiomyopathy is characterized by impaired ventricular filling with normal or near-normal systolic function and ventricular wall thickness, not the dilation and reduced ejection fraction seen in this patient.
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