Podcast Episode 99: Ten PANCE, PANRE, and Rotation Review Questions

Podcast Episode 99: Ten PANCE, PANRE, and Rotation Review Questions

The Audio PANCE and PANRE Episode 99Welcome to episode 99 of the Audio PANCE and PANRE Physician Assistant/Associate Board Review Podcast.

Join me as I cover ten PANCE, PANRE, and EOR™ review questions from the Smarty PANCE Instagram/Facebook page and the smartypance.com board review website.

Special from today's episode:

Below you will find an interactive exam to complement today's podcast.

The Audio PANCE/PANRE and EOR PA Board Review Podcast

I hope you enjoy this free audio component to the examination portion of this site. The full board review course includes over 2,000 interactive board review questions and is available to all members of Smarty PANCE.

Listen Carefully Then Take the Practice Exam

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Podcast Episode 99: Ten PANCE/PANRE and EOR Topic Blueprint Questions

1. A 42-year-old male on lithium presents with polyuria, nocturia, and polydipsia. Laboratory findings are remarkable for slightly elevated sodium. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
D. SIADH
E. Adrenal insufficiency

Click here to see the answer

The answer is B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the kidneys are resistant to the effects of ADH. Nephrogenic DI can occur secondary to lithium toxicity or chronic lithium usepregnancyinherited disorders, and electrolyte issues. Clinical features include polyuria, nocturia, and polydipsia. Serum sodium is either normal or high.

In this patient, lithium has entered the collecting duct, accumulated, and interfered with ADH’s capacity to increase water permeability. Treatment options for this patient include amiloride or thiazide diuretics. In general, whether or not lithium is discontinued depends on many factors.

View blueprint lesson

Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:

Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Endocrinology ⇒ Pituitary Disorders ⇒ Diabetes insipidus

Also covered as part of the Internal Medicine EOR and Emergency Medicine PAEA EOR topic list

2. A 50-year-old female presents with poor appetite, low energy, poor concentration, and feelings of hopelessness on most days for the past 3 years. She denies suicidal ideation. She has never had a past manic or hypomanic episode. Which of the following is the best treatment option?

A. Haloperidol
B. Fluoxetine
C. Lorazepam
D. Amitriptyline
E. Risperidone

Click here to see the answer

The answer is B. Fluoxetine

This patient has dysthymia, or persistent depressive disorder. The DSM V criteria follow:

  • Depressed mood ≥ 2 years on most days
  • At least 2 of the following: appetite changes, sleep changes, low energy, low self-esteem, poor concentration, hopelessness
  • Not without symptoms > 2 months at a time
  • No mania or hypomania episodes, ever

Like other psychiatric disorders, symptoms can’t be attributable to drugs, and the symptoms must cause distress/impairment. 1st line treatment is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and psychotherapy.

View blueprint lesson

Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:

Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Psychiatry ⇒ Depressive disorders ⇒ Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

Also covered as part of the Psychiatry EOREmergency Medicine EOR, and Pediatric PAEA EOR topic list

3. An 85-year-old male with a history of chronic kidney disease presents to the ER with muscle cramps. Laboratory studies reveal potassium of 7.8 mEq/L. EKG reveals peaked T waves. Which of the following is the best initial med to give?

A. Insulin
B. Albuterol
C. Furosemide
D. Sodium bicarbonate
E. Calcium gluconate

Click here to see the answer

The answer is E. Calcium gluconate

Hyperkalemia is caused by many things: iatrogenic (ACEI/ARBs), cellular destruction (hemolysis, tumor lysis syndrome, burns), renal failure, adrenal insufficiency, etc. Symptoms are nonspecific and include muscle weakness, N/V, decreased DTRs, etc. Classically on EKG, you may see peaked T waves (there are many other findings though…such as QRS widening, PR interval prolongation, sine-wave, etc). Management for severe hyperkalemia includes calcium gluconate (stabilizes the resting membrane potential of the myocardial membrane), shifting potassium intracellularly (via beta-agonists, sodium bicarbonate, insulin), and removing potassium (via diuretics, kayexalate, or hemodialysis).

View blueprint lesson

Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:

Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Renal SystemFluid and Electrolyte DisordersHyperkalemia/hypokalemia

Also covered as part of the Emergency Medicine EOR and General Surgery PAEA EOR topic list

4. A 28-year-old male with sickle cell disease presents to the ER with chest pain, dyspnea, and a cough for the past day. Vitals are remarkable for SpO2 91% and T 102.2F. A CXR reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. On physical exam the patient is alert, speaking in full sentences, and breathing without accessory muscle use. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

A. Surgical consultation, antibiotics, plasmapheresis, IVIG
B. Pain control, hydration, blood transfusions, oxygen, antibiotics, VTE prophylaxis
C. Immediate endotracheal intubation, aggressive intravenous fluids, antibiotics, blood transfusions
D. Blood transfusions and oxygen only
E. Empiric antibiotics and oxygen only

Click here to see the answer

The answer is B. Pain control, hydration, blood transfusions, oxygen, antibiotics, VTE prophylaxis

The patient has acute chest syndrome (ACS), which is defined as a new radiodensity on CXR with fever and/or pulmonary symptoms. It occurs due to vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary microvasculature, subsequently leading to deoxygenation of hemoglobin and sickling of RBCs. ACS is the main cause of death in patients with sickle cell disease (SCD). About 1 in 2 patients with SCD get ACS.

Patients may present with chest pain, extremity pain, and shortness of breath. Causes of ACS include fat emboli, infection, asthma, oversedation, and post-op issues. Treatment typically includes fluidsoxygenpain controlblood transfusionsantibiotics, and VTE prophylaxis.

View blueprint lesson

Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:

Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Hematology ⇒ Hemoglobinopathies ⇒ Sickle cell anemia

Also covered as part of the Internal Medicine EOR and Emergency Medicine PAEA EOR topic list

5. Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial sialadenitis?

A. Bacteroides
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Escherichia coli
E. Streptococcus viridans

Click here to see the answer

The answer is B. Staphylococcus aureus

Bacterial sialadenitis is defined by inflammation of a salivary gland due to a bacterial infection. It is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureusUsually, bacterial sialadenitis happens in the setting of a salivary gland stone (reduced salivary flow leads to bacteria building up in the mouth). Other risk factors include bad oral hygiene and old age. The most common gland affected is the parotid gland.

Clinical features include acute onset of fever, chills, and swelling/tenderness of the affected gland (possible to see purulent drainage). The treatment is broad-spectrum antibiotics: IV ampicillin-sulbactam. Surgical drainage is needed if an abscess develo

View blueprint lesson

Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:

Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint EENT ⇒ Salivary disorders ⇒ Sialadenitis

Also covered as part of the Family Medicine PAEA EOR topic list

6. A 52-year-old female presents to the clinic complaining of chronic bone pain, constipation, and fatigue. Her last lab results reveal a decline in the glomerular filtration rate. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Polymyalgia rheumatica
E. Colorectal cancer

Click here to see the answer

The answer is C. Multiple myeloma

The patient has multiple myeloma, which is a clonal proliferation of abnormal plasma cells. It can present with “BREAK” symptoms: Bone pain, Recurrent infections, Elevated calcium, Anemia, and Kidney failure. A serum and urine protein electrophoresis will reveal a monoclonal spike. Other diagnostic studies include a CT or MRI (reveals lytic bone lesions), peripheral blood smear (normocytic anemia in rouleaux formation), and urinalysis (Bence Jones proteins aka free light chains).

The definitive diagnosis is a bone marrow biopsy. Treatment is high-dose chemotherapy with autologous hematopoietic cell transplantation.

View blueprint lesson

Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:

Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint HematologyNeoplasms, premalignancies, and malignanciesMultiple myeloma

Also covered as part of the Internal Medicine PAEA EOR topic list

7. A 56-year-old post-menopausal G0P0 female presents to the clinic complaining of abnormal uterine bleeding and weight loss for the past 5 months. Physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is not a risk factor for this patient’s likely diagnosis?

A. Nulliparity
B. Tamoxifen
C. Chronic anovulation
D. Obesity
E. Late menarche

Click here to see the answer

The answer is E. Late menarche

The patient has endometrial cancer, the most commonly encountered gynecologic cancer. The cardinal symptom is abnormal uterine bleeding. Other clinical features include pelvic pain, pelvic masses, and weight loss.

Risk factors include conditions or medications that lead to chronically increased estrogen levels, such as nulliparity, tamoxifen, anovulation, and obesity. Early menarche and late menopause would be risk factors, not late menarche.

View blueprint lesson

Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:

Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Reproductive SystemNeoplasms of the breast and reproductive tractEndometrial cancer

Also covered as part of the Women’s Health PAEA EOR topic list

8. Which of the following are the two most common etiologies of peptic ulcer disease?

A. H. pylori and NSAIDs
B. Spicy foods and acute stress
C. Chemical ingestion and GERD
D. Smoking and alcohol use
E. Chronic stress and radiation

Click here to see the answer

The answer is A. H. pylori and NSAIDs

Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a common GI disease defined by a defect in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum. The two most common causes are H. pylori and NSAIDs. Other more rare culprits include Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome, cancer, stress, and radiation. Surprisingly, patients are asymptomatic about 70% of the time. Common symptoms are epigastric abdominal paindyspepsia, and bloating. Overall, an upper endoscopy is the best diagnostic test. A biopsy should be done for ulcers with malignant features on all gastric ulcers.

The preferred treatment is PPIs. If H. pylori is the cause, an antibiotic regimen is warranted (e.g., amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and a PPI).

View blueprint lesson

Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:

Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint GI and Nutrition ⇒ Gastric Disorders ⇒ Peptic ulcer disease

Also covered as part of the Internal Medicine EOREmergency Medicine EORFamily Medicine EOR, and General Surgery EOR topic list

9. A 72-year-old male smoker with a history of cancer presents to the clinic for an annual physical. Vitals are unremarkable. On physical exam, you notice erythema along the course of a superficial vein on his left leg. The area is mildly tender to palpation. The left leg is also larger than the other leg. Which of the following is the next best step?

A. Treat with NSAIDs and warm compresses
B. Order a duplex ultrasound
C. Initial anticoagulation immediately
D. Admit to the hospital
E. Reassurance and send home

Click here to see the answer

The answer is B. Order a duplex ultrasound

The patient has superficial thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation involving a superficial vein along with the presence of a superficial clot. Risk factors include varicose veins, estrogen, prior DVT, cancer, and hypercoagulable states. Clinical features include tendernessindurationpain, and erythematous skin over a superficial vein.

In many cases, duplex ultrasound is needed to rule out a concurrent DVT (studies show that up to 25-50% of patients with superficial thrombophlebitis have a concurrent DVT). Treatment includes NSAIDs, warm/cold compressesextremity elevation, and compression therapy. The decision to initiate anticoagulation for superficial thrombophlebitis depends on many factors.

View blueprint lesson

Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:

Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Cardiology ⇒ Vascular Disease ⇒ Phlebitis/thrombophlebitis

10. A 63-year-old male with a history of hepatitis C presents with a pruritic rash located on the flexor surfaces of his wrist. On physical exam, you observe purplish papules with flat-tops. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Atopic dermatitis
B. Psoriasis
C. Lichen planus
D. Pemphigus vulgaris
E. Scabies

Click here to see the answer

The answer is C. Lichen planus

Lichen planus is a skin disorder characterized by a rash associated with the 5 Pspolygonal, pruritic, papules, plaques, and purple. It commonly affects the wrists and ankles. Lichen planus can also cause the classic Wickham’s striae, which are white-lacelike lines (usually in the oral mucosa). A risk factor is hepatitis C.

skin biopsy can help confirm the diagnosis. Treatment includes high potency topical corticosteroids. If a patient has an extensive form of lichen planus, then phototherapy, acitretin, or systemic steroids may help.

View blueprint lesson

Smarty PANCE Content Blueprint Review:

Covered under ⇒ PANCE Blueprint Dermatology ⇒ Papulosquamous Disorders ⇒ Lichen planus

Also covered as part of the Family Medicine EOR and Pediatric EOR topic list

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