PANCE Blueprint Endocrinology (7%)

PANRE/PANRE-LA Endocrinology Practice Exam

Question 1
A 28-year-old woman is found to have a 2cm thyroid nodule on routine physical exam. Thyroid function tests are normal. Ultrasound shows the nodule is solid, hypoechoic, and hypervascular with smooth margins and no microcalcifications. Fine needle aspiration is benign. Which of the following is the best management for this nodule?
A
Total thyroidectomy
Hint:
Invasive, not indicated for benign nodule
B
Radioactive iodine ablation
Hint:
Specifically treats hyperthyroidism, not benign nodules
C
Repeat fine needle aspiration in 6-12 months
Hint:
Needed only if nodule grows
D
Suppressive levothyroxine therapy
Hint:
Does not shrink benign nodules
E
Observation with follow-up ultrasound
Question 1 Explanation: 
The cytology showing a benign nodule in a patient with normal thyroid function indicates this is likely a benign thyroid adenoma. These are followed with serial ultrasound and observed if stable. Although the ideal timing for follow up ultrasound is up for debate - data supports repeat evaluation 2-4 years after the initial benign FINA. Repeat aspiration is needed only if the nodule grows. Thyroidectomy, radioactive iodine, and suppressive levothyroxine therapy are not indicated for benign nodules. Therefore, observation with follow-up ultrasound is the best management. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Thyroid neoplastic disease)
Question 2
A 32-year-old woman presents with progressive central obesity, facial plethora, proximal muscle weakness, and irregular menstruation over the past 2 years. Laboratory results show a fasting glucose of 128 mg/dL, potassium 2.4 mEq/L, and 24-hour urine free cortisol level 3-fold the upper limit of normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A
Addison disease
Hint:
Causes hypocortisolism
B
Ectopic ACTH syndrome
Hint:
More severe hypokalemia
C
Pituitary adenoma
Hint:
Would cause hyperpigmentation
D
Adrenal adenoma
E
McCune-Albright syndrome
Hint:
McCune-Albright syndrome is caused by a mutation in a gene called GNAS1. It is an extremely rare disease that affects the bones, the skin and the endocrine system. Children with McCune-Albright condition have weakened bones that break easily. The disorder is present at birth, but symptoms may not appear until later in childhood.
Question 2 Explanation: 
This patient has signs and symptoms of hypercortisolism along with elevated urine free cortisol, consistent with Cushing syndrome. The lack of hyperpigmentation makes ACTH-dependent causes like pituitary adenoma less likely. Ectopic ACTH would also present with more hypokalemia. McCune-Albright classically causes peripheral precocious puberty in children. An adrenal adenoma causing unilateral hypersecretion is the most likely etiology in an adult patient. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Cushing’s syndrome)
Question 3
A 55-year-old man presents with polyuria and polydipsia. Lab tests reveal a low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality. Water deprivation does not improve urine concentration. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A
Administer desmopressin
B
Administer tolvaptan
Hint:
Tolvaptan is used for SIADH, not diabetes insipidus.
C
Measure serum copeptin levels
Hint:
Low vasopressin or copeptin levels are diagnostic, but vasopressin and copeptin levels are difficult to measure, and the tests are not routinely available.
D
Perform a hypertonic saline test
Hint:
A hypertonic saline test is not appropriate for this condition.
E
Measure serum sodium levels
Hint:
Serum sodium levels are not the initial diagnostic step for diabetes insipidus.
Question 3 Explanation: 
The patient's symptoms and lab findings are consistent with diabetes insipidus. Administering desmopressin, a synthetic ADH, can confirm the diagnosis and help differentiate between central and nephrogenic forms. Treatment of central diabetes insipidus is also with desmopressin. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Diabetes insipidus)
Question 4
A 62-year-old man presents with fatigue, constipation, and depression. Lab results show serum calcium 12 mg/dL (normal 8.5-10.2 mg/dL), albumin 4 g/dL (normal 3.5-5 g/dL), intact PTH 140 pg/mL (normal 15-65 pg/mL), and creatinine 1.1 mg/dL (normal 0.7-1.3 mg/dL). Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A
IV fluids
Hint:
Not definitive treatment
B
Cinacalcet
Hint:
Does not address underlying cause
C
Vitamin D supplementation
Hint:
Can worsen hypercalcemia
D
Parathyroidectomy
E
Zoledronic acid
Hint:
Not indicated, can worsen hypercalcemia
Question 4 Explanation: 
This patient has elevated calcium and intact PTH, consistent with primary hyperparathyroidism. He has no evidence of volume depletion or renal impairment that would cause pseudohyperparathyroidism. In a symptomatic patient, parathyroidectomy to resect the overactive gland(s) is definitive treatment. Medical management with cinacalcet can lower calcium but does not address the underlying cause. IV fluids can temporarily lower calcium in dehydration but are not definitive. Vitamin D and bisphosphonates like zoledronic acid are not indicated and could worsen hypercalcemia. Therefore, parathyroidectomy is the most appropriate management. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Hyperparathyroidism )
Question 5
A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of palpitations, tremors, and unintentional weight loss over the past two months. On examination, he has a resting heart rate of 110 bpm, and his thyroid gland is diffusely enlarged. Laboratory tests reveal a low TSH and elevated free T4 levels. An ultrasound confirms a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland with increased vascularity. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A
Administer propranolol
Hint:
Administering propranolol would only manage the symptoms but not address the underlying cause.
B
Initiate methimazole
Hint:
Initiating methimazole without confirming the cause could be inappropriate, especially if the hyperthyroidism is due to thyroiditis.
C
Perform radioactive iodine uptake test
D
Administer levothyroxine
Hint:
Administering levothyroxine would exacerbate the hyperthyroidism.
E
Refer for thyroidectomy
Hint:
Referring for thyroidectomy is premature without a definitive diagnosis.
Question 5 Explanation: 
The patient's symptoms and lab findings are indicative of hyperthyroidism. A radioactive iodine uptake test is the next step to differentiate between various causes of hyperthyroidism, such as Graves' disease, toxic multinodular goiter, or thyroiditis. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Hyperthyroidism )
Question 6
A 45-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes and obesity presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. Her medications include metformin and atorvastatin at a dose of 80 mg daily. Her recent labs reveal an LDL cholesterol of 80 and a triglyceride level of 950 mg/dL. She denies any symptoms, such as abdominal pain or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows hepatosplenomegaly. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's hypertriglyceridemia?
A
Increase the dose of atorvastatin
Hint:
Patient is already on a max dose of atorvastatin and the LDL cholesterol is at goal
B
Initiate omega-3 fatty acids
Hint:
Omega-3 fatty acids can be used but are generally less effective than fibrates for severe cases.
C
Start fibrate therapy
D
Advise lifestyle modifications
Hint:
Lifestyle modifications alone are insufficient for managing such elevated triglyceride levels.
E
Initiate niacin therapy
Hint:
Niacin can lower triglycerides but is generally less effective than fibrates and has more side effects.
Question 6 Explanation: 
This patient has severe hypertriglyceridemia, which places her at risk for acute pancreatitis. Given her triglyceride levels are above 886 mg/dL and LDL cholesterol is at goal on high does atorvastatin pharmacotherapy is urgently needed. Fibrates, such as fenofibrate, are the best initial medical treatment for severe hypertriglyceridemia. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Hypertriglyceridemia )
Question 7
A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with tingling sensations in his hands and feet, as well as muscle cramps. He has a history of thyroidectomy two weeks ago. On examination, he has a positive Trousseau's sign. His serum calcium level is 6.8 mg/dL (normal 8.5-10.2 mg/dL). What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A
Administer intravenous calcium gluconate
B
Start oral calcium and vitamin D supplements
Hint:
Oral calcium and vitamin D are used for maintenance but are insufficient for acute symptoms.
C
Initiate thiazide diuretics
Hint:
Thiazide diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of hypoparathyroidism.
D
Administer intramuscular parathyroid hormone
Hint:
Intramuscular parathyroid hormone is not the first-line treatment for acute hypocalcemia.
E
Reassure and discharge
Hint:
Reassurance and discharge would be inappropriate given the severity of the symptoms and the low calcium levels.
Question 7 Explanation: 
This patient has hypocalcemia likely secondary to hypoparathyroidism following thyroidectomy. Given the acute symptoms and the significantly low calcium level, immediate intravenous calcium gluconate is indicated to quickly correct the calcium imbalance. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Hypoparathyroidism )
Question 8
A 42-year-old woman is evaluated for fatigue, cold intolerance, constipation, and unintentional 10 lb weight gain over the past 6 months. She has no goiter. Thyroid function tests show TSH 12 uIU/mL (normal 0.5-4.5 uIU/mL), free T4 0.7 ng/dL (normal 0.8-1.8 ng/dL), and total T3 60 ng/dL (normal 80-180 ng/dL). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A
Hashimoto thyroiditis
Hint:
No goiter or tenderness described
B
Subacute thyroiditis
Hint:
No goiter or tenderness described
C
Secondary hypothyroidism
Hint:
TSH would not be elevated
D
Medication effect
Hint:
No medication use described
E
Primary hypothyroidism
Question 8 Explanation: 
This patient has elevated TSH and low free T4 and total T3, indicating overt primary hypothyroidism. There is no evidence of thyroiditis based on lack of pain and normal thyroid on exam. Secondary hypothyroidism from pituitary pathology would show low or normal TSH. Medications can cause hypothyroidism but there is no clear indication in the history. Therefore, primary hypothyroidism, most likely from chronic autoimmune thyroiditis, is the most likely diagnosis. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Hypothyroidism)
Question 9
A 52-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension comes to his primary care provider for a routine check-up. He has a BMI of 35 kg/m^2 and a waist circumference of 42 inches. His blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg, and his fasting blood glucose is 180 mg/dL. His lipid panel shows a triglyceride level of 220 mg/dL and an HDL cholesterol level of 35 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate initial intervention for this patient?
A
Start antihypertensive medication
Hint:
Antihypertensive medication may be needed, but lifestyle changes are the first step.
B
Initiate statin therapy
Hint:
Statin therapy is generally considered after lifestyle modifications have failed.
C
Begin lifestyle modifications
D
Prescribe metformin
Hint:
Metformin is used for diabetes control but doesn't address the underlying metabolic syndrome.
E
Refer for bariatric surgery
Hint:
Bariatric surgery is a last resort when other interventions have failed.
Question 9 Explanation: 
This patient meets the criteria for metabolic syndrome, which includes abdominal obesity, elevated blood pressure, elevated fasting glucose, and dyslipidemia. The cornerstone of treatment for metabolic syndrome is lifestyle modification, including diet, exercise, and weight loss. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Obesity and Metabolic Syndrome)
Question 10
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to the clinic for a routine check-up. She is concerned about her risk for osteoporosis, as her mother had a vertebral fracture at the age of 60. She has no history of fractures and her BMI is 25 kg/m^2. A DEXA scan is performed, and her T-score is -1.2 at the femoral neck. What is the most appropriate interpretation of this patient's T-score?
A
The patient has osteoporosis
Hint:
A T-score of -2.5 or lower is indicative of osteoporosis.
B
The patient has osteopenia
Hint:
A T-score between -1.0 and -2.5 is indicative of osteopenia.
C
The patient has normal bone density
D
The patient requires immediate bisphosphonate therapy
Hint:
Bisphosphonate therapy is not indicated for this T-score.
E
The patient should undergo a repeat DEXA scan immediately
Hint:
A repeat DEXA scan is not immediately necessary given the normal T-score.
Question 10 Explanation: 
A T-score between -1.0 and +1.0 is considered normal. This patient's T-score of -1.2 is close to the normal range, indicating that she has normal bone density. No immediate treatment is required; lifestyle modifications and regular follow-up are appropriate. For this 55-year-old postmenopausal woman, the recommended daily intake is 1200 mg of calcium and 600 to 800 IU of vitamin D. These nutrients can be sourced from a balanced diet, fortified foods, and supplements as needed. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Osteoporosis )
Question 11
A 28-year-old woman presents with fatigue, nausea, and orthostatic hypotension. Laboratory results show: morning cortisol 5 mcg/dL (normal 6-23 mcg/dL), ACTH 85 pg/mL (normal 6-50 pg/mL), aldosterone 2 ng/dL (normal 4-31 ng/dL), plasma renin activity 5 ng/mL/hr (normal 0.5-5 ng/mL/hr). Which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of these lab results?
A
Primary adrenal insufficiency
B
Secondary adrenal insufficiency
Hint:
ACTH would be low from pituitary pathology
C
Tertiary adrenal insufficiency
Hint:
Refers to hypothalamic dysfunction
D
Renal artery stenosis
Hint:
Would elevate plasma renin activity
E
Glucocorticoid resistance
Hint:
Cortisol levels would be higher
Question 11 Explanation: 
This patient has low morning cortisol with inappropriately elevated ACTH and low aldosterone. This pattern is consistent with primary adrenal insufficiency due to dysfunction of the adrenal glands. Secondary AI would show low ACTH from pituitary pathology. Tertiary AI refers to hypothalamic dysfunction. Renal artery stenosis would elevate renin. Glucocorticoid resistance would present with higher cortisol levels. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Primary adrenal insufficiency)
Question 12
A 35-year-old woman presents with a painless, palpable mass in the neck. She has no history of radiation exposure or family history of thyroid cancer. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy of the thyroid nodule reveals papillary carcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A
Total thyroidectomy
B
Radioactive iodine ablation
Hint:
This is generally used as adjuvant therapy after total thyroidectomy to destroy any remaining thyroid tissue and metastatic disease.
C
Chemotherapy
Hint:
Chemotherapy is not the first-line treatment for papillary thyroid carcinoma and is generally reserved for anaplastic thyroid cancer, which is very aggressive.
D
Observation and serial ultrasound
Hint:
Observation is not appropriate for a confirmed diagnosis of papillary thyroid carcinoma.
E
Fine-needle aspiration biopsy of cervical lymph nodes
Hint:
While this could provide additional staging information, it does not replace the need for surgical intervention.
Question 12 Explanation: 
In the case of papillary thyroid carcinoma, total thyroidectomy is the recommended first-line surgical treatment. This approach is favored because it allows for the complete removal of the tumor along with any microscopic disease that may be present in the thyroid gland. Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common type of thyroid cancer and is generally slow-growing with a good prognosis. However, it can metastasize to lymph nodes, making complete surgical removal crucial for optimal outcomes. After surgery, patients are often treated with radioactive iodine ablation to destroy any remaining thyroid tissue and to treat or prevent metastatic disease. Thyroid hormone replacement therapy is usually required after total thyroidectomy. Regular follow-up with serum thyroglobulin levels and imaging studies are essential for monitoring. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Thyroid neoplastic disease)
Question 13

A 32-year-old woman presents with neck pain, fatigue, and fever. On exam, her thyroid gland is enlarged and tender. Thyroid function tests show TSH <0.01 uIU/mL (nl 0.5-4.5 uIU/mL), total T4 8 mcg/dL (nl 4-12 mcg/dL), and total T3 140 ng/dL (nl 80-180 ng/dL). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A
Hashimoto thyroiditis
Hint:
Usually presents with a painless goiter and hypothyroid symptoms. It is not associated with acute symptoms like fever and neck pain.
B
Subacute thyroiditis
C
Silent thyroiditis
Hint:
Silent lymphocytic thyroiditis is a self-limited, subacute disorder occurring most commonly in women during the postpartum period. Symptoms are initially of hyperthyroidism, then hypothyroidism, and then generally recovery to the euthyroid state. The term "silent" refers to the absence of thyroid tenderness in contrast with subacute thyroiditis, which usually causes thyroid tenderness.
D
Graves disease
Hint:
Leads to hyperthyroidism but does not present with an acutely painful and enlarged thyroid gland.
E
Thyroid storm
Hint:
This is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe hyperthyroidism. It is usually triggered by stressors like surgery or infection and would present with more severe symptoms like altered mental status and high fever.
Question 13 Explanation: 
The patient's symptoms of neck pain, fatigue, and fever, along with an enlarged and tender thyroid gland and suppressed TSH, are indicative of subacute thyroiditis. This condition is often viral in origin and can present with a hyperthyroid phase due to the release of preformed thyroid hormone. Treatment often involves NSAIDs for symptom relief and beta-blockers for symptomatic hyperthyroidism. Corticosteroids may be considered for severe cases. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Thyroiditis)
Question 14
A 16-year-old male presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss over the past few weeks. Fingerstick blood glucose is 350 mg/dL. Which of the following lab findings would confirm the diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A
Fasting C-peptide level < 0.5 ng/mL
B
Elevated glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
Hint:
While elevated HbA1c indicates poor glycemic control, it does not differentiate between type 1 and type 2 diabetes.
C
Presence of glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) antibodies
Hint:
These antibodies are often present in type 1 diabetes but are not definitive for diagnosis.
D
Positive urine glucose but no ketones
Hint:
Presence of glucose in urine indicates hyperglycemia but doesn't confirm type 1 diabetes.
E
Normal serum insulin level
Hint:
Insulin levels can be variable and are not reliable for diagnosing type 1 diabetes.
Question 14 Explanation: 
In type 1 diabetes mellitus, the body's immune system destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. C-peptide is a byproduct of insulin production, and a low fasting C-peptide level indicates reduced insulin production, supporting the diagnosis of type 1 diabetes. Treatment involves lifelong insulin replacement. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Diabetes mellitus type 1)
Question 15
A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with nausea, vomiting, and shortness of breath. Serum chemistry shows: pH 7.2, bicarbonate 12 mEq/L, blood glucose 600 mg/dL. Urinalysis demonstrates glycosuria and ketonuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A
0.9% saline bolus
Hint:
While fluid replacement is important in DKA, it alone will not correct the underlying metabolic abnormalities.
B
Insulin drip with 5% dextrose
C
Sodium bicarbonate infusion
Hint:
This is generally not recommended for DKA unless the pH is extremely low (<6.9).
D
Metformin 500mg PO
Hint:
Metformin is not used in the acute management of DKA and could potentially worsen the condition.
E
Fingerstick glucose checks every 2 hours
Hint:
Monitoring is essential but does not treat the underlying condition.
Question 15 Explanation: 
The patient is presenting with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes characterized by hyperglycemia, ketonemia, and metabolic acidosis. The cornerstone of treatment is insulin therapy to lower blood glucose and resolve ketonemia. The addition of 5% dextrose prevents hypoglycemia as the blood glucose levels decrease with treatment. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Diabetes mellitus type 1)
Question 16
A 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension and obesity comes to the clinic for a routine check-up. He reports increased thirst and frequent urination for the past month. His fasting blood glucose is 140 mg/dL and HbA1c is 8.0%. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic treatment for this patient?
A
Metformin
B
Insulin glargine
Hint:
Insulin is generally reserved for patients who cannot achieve glycemic control with oral agents or have symptomatic hyperglycemia.
C
Glipizide
Hint:
This is a sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin release but is generally not the first choice due to the risk of hypoglycemia.
D
Pioglitazone
Hint:
A thiazolidinedione that may be used in combination therapy but is not typically first-line due to potential side effects like weight gain and heart failure.
E
Sitagliptin
Hint:
A DPP-4 inhibitor that is generally used as an add-on therapy when metformin alone is insufficient.
Question 16 Explanation: 
The patient's symptoms and lab findings are consistent with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. The first-line pharmacologic treatment for Type 2 Diabetes is metformin, unless contraindicated. Metformin works by decreasing hepatic glucose production and increasing insulin sensitivity, thereby lowering both fasting and postprandial blood glucose levels. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Diabetes Mellitus Type 2)
Question 17
A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with altered mental status. Lab results show serum glucose 1200 mg/dL, serum osmolality 320 mOsm/kg, pH 7.35, bicarbonate 22 mEq/L, and negative urinalysis for ketones. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A
0.45% saline infusion
Hint:
Can worsen cerebral edema
B
Insulin drip with potassium supplementation
Hint:
Given after initial IV hydration
C
IV hydration with 0.9% saline
D
Sodium bicarbonate infusion
Hint:
Sodium bicarbonate and octreotide do not have a clear role in HHS management.
E
Administration of octreotide
Hint:
Sodium bicarbonate and octreotide do not have a clear role in HHS management.
Question 17 Explanation: 
The profound hyperglycemia and hyperosmolality without significant acidosis or ketosis is consistent with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). Initial management involves aggressive IV hydration with 0.9% saline to promote gradual osmotic diuresis and prevent cerebral edema. Insulin is given after initial fluids to slowly correct the hyperglycemia. 0.45% saline is inappropriate as it can worsen cerebral edema. Sodium bicarbonate and octreotide do not have a clear role in HHS management. (PANRE Blueprint Topic: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome)
Question 18
A 62-year-old woman presents with 2 months of progressive lower back pain, proximal muscle weakness, and fatigue. She has no recent trauma. Lab results show: normal complete blood count, electrolytes, renal function, and calcium; 25-hydroxyvitamin D level is 15 ng/mL (normal 30-80 ng/mL). Which of the following is an expected physical exam finding in this patient?
A
Hyperreflexia
Hint:
More commonly seen in hypercalcemia or hyperthyroidism.
B
Tetany
Hint:
Associated with hypocalcemia, not specifically Vitamin D deficiency.
C
Bone tenderness
D
Rales on lung auscultation
Hint:
Not related to Vitamin D deficiency.
E
Positive Chvostek sign
Hint:
Indicates hypocalcemia or hypomagnesemia, not specifically Vitamin D deficiency.
Question 18 Explanation: 
This patient has biochemical evidence of vitamin D deficiency along with symptoms including back pain, muscle weakness, and fatigue. Vitamin D plays a crucial role in calcium homeostasis and bone health. Deficiency can lead to osteomalacia in adults, characterized by bone tenderness, muscle weakness, and fatigue. Hyperreflexia, tetany, and positive Chvostek sign indicate associated hypocalcemia, which is not present. Lung findings are not associated with vitamin D deficiency. (Review PANRE Blueprint Topic: Hypervitaminosis/hypovitaminosis)
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