PANCE Blueprint GI and Nutrition (8%)

Hemorrhoids (Lecture)

Patient with internal hemorrhoids will present as → a 42-year-old male presents with painless rectal bleeding during bowel movements for the past week. He reports a history of chronic constipation. On examination, there is no visible perianal abnormality. Digital rectal examination is unremarkable, but there is evidence of bright red blood on the glove. An anoscopy reveals enlarged, non-prolapsing internal hemorrhoids. The patient is counseled on dietary modifications, including increased fiber intake and hydration, to alleviate constipation. He is also prescribed a topical hemorrhoidal cream with hydrocortisone and instructed on the importance of regular bowel habits to prevent straining.
Patient with external hemorrhoids will present as → a 35-year-old female presents with anal pain and itching, especially during sitting and following bowel movements. She recently gave birth to her second child. On examination, there are swollen, bluish, tender lumps around the anal verge, consistent with thrombosed external hemorrhoids. She is advised on warm sitz baths and is prescribed a topical anesthetic cream for symptomatic relief. She is also educated on the importance of avoiding straining and maintaining soft bowel movements through adequate hydration and fiber intake. She is informed that the thrombosed hemorrhoids may resolve spontaneously, but surgical intervention can be considered if symptoms persist or worsen.

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A patient presents with sudden, excruciating perianal pain and a purple lump. What is the likely diagnosis and management?
Thrombosed external hemorrhoid. Seen within about 72 hours of onset with severe pain → excision of the thrombosed hemorrhoid gives the fastest relief (simple incision and clot evacuation recurs more often). After 72 hours, conservative care (sitz baths, analgesics) is preferred because the clot is already organizing.
When is a colonoscopy indicated in a patient presenting with hemorrhoidal bleeding?
While hemorrhoids are a common cause of BRBPR, they can hide more serious disease. Colonoscopy is indicated for hemorrhoidal bleeding at age 40 or older, and at any age with red flags (weight loss, change in bowel habits, iron deficiency anemia, atypical bleeding, family history of colorectal cancer or IBD) or bleeding that persists after treatment.

Internal vs External Hemorrhoids — Quick Compare
🔑 The rule: Above the dentate line bleeds. Below the dentate line hurts. Internal = visceral nerves → painless bright red bleeding. External = somatic nerves → painful lump, especially when thrombosed.
Internal vs external hemorrhoids relative to the dentate line
Internal External
Location Above the dentate line Below the dentate line
Nerves Visceral → painless Somatic → painful
Classic finding Painless bright red blood on the paper or in the bowl; prolapse Acutely painful, bluish perianal lump (thrombosed); usually no bleeding
Grading I–IV by prolapse Not graded
Diagnosis Anoscopy (can't be felt on DRE) Inspection at the anal verge
Office treatment Rubber band ligation (grade I–III) Excision if thrombosed < 72 hours
First line for both Fiber + fluids, sitz baths, short-course topical agents
⚠️ Never band an external hemorrhoid: somatic nerves make it severely painful. Rectal bleeding with age ≥ 45, iron-deficiency anemia, weight loss or a change in bowel habits → colonoscopy before blaming hemorrhoids.

Hemorrhoids are normal vascular cushions (blood vessels, smooth muscle, and connective tissue) in the anal canal; hemorrhoidal disease is when they enlarge, slide down, bleed, or clot (they are not simply varicose veins)

  • Risk factors: chronic constipation and straining, prolonged sitting on the toilet, pregnancy, chronic diarrhea, older age, and obesity (portal hypertension causes rectal varices, a different problem)
  • Discomfort is a common symptom, especially during bowel movements or when sitting. Other symptoms include itching and bleeding

There are three types of hemorrhoids

Internal hemorrhoids (above the dentate line): painless bright red blood per rectum (visceral nerves above the dentate line do not sense pain)

  • Internal hemorrhoids typically manifest with bleeding after defecation; blood is noted on toilet tissue and sometimes in the toilet bowl
  • Internal hemorrhoids may be uncomfortable but are not as painful as thrombosed external hemorrhoids
  • Internal hemorrhoids sometimes cause mucus discharge and a sensation of incomplete evacuation
Hemorrhoids grade IV

Grade IV internal Hemorrhoids. Image: Απόστολος Σταματιάδης, CC BY-SA 2.5, via Wikimedia Commons.

External hemorrhoids (below dentate line): painful when thrombosed (somatic nerves), usually no bleeding

  • External hemorrhoids may become thrombosed, resulting in painful, purplish swelling
  • Rarely they ulcerate and cause minor bleeding. Cleansing the anal region may be difficult
Perinanalthrombose 01

Thrombosed external hemorrhoid. Image: Ole Gebbensleben, York Hilger and Henning Rohde, CC BY 2.0, via Wikimedia Commons.

Strangulated hemorrhoids occur when protrusion and constriction occlude the blood supply. They cause pain that is occasionally followed by necrosis and ulceration.

Physical examination

  • Inspection of the anal verge and perianal area for external hemorrhoids, prolapsed internal hemorrhoids, or other possible causes of anal symptoms (e.g., condylomata)
  • Digital rectal examination (DRE) for palpation for masses, tenderness, and characterization of anal sphincter tone

Studies

  • Anoscopy is the best way to see internal hemorrhoids (they cannot be felt on DRE unless thrombosed)
  • Colonoscopy for bleeding at age 40 or older, and at any age with iron deficiency anemia, atypical bleeding, change in bowel habits, family history of colorectal cancer or IBD, or bleeding that persists after treatment; melena or dark blood → look for an upper GI source

Classification of internal hemorrhoids is based on the degree of prolapse

  • Grade I: visualized via anoscopy; do not prolapse below the dentate line
  • Grade II: prolapse out of the anal canal with defecation or straining but reduce spontaneously
  • Grade III: prolapse out of the anal canal with defecation or straining and require manual reduction
  • Grade IV: irreducible and may strangulate
Blausen 0408 Hemorrhoids

location of internal vs. external hemorrhoids. Image: BruceBlaus, CC BY 3.0, via Wikimedia Commons.

All patients: fiber first

  • Fiber 20–30 g/day (e.g., psyllium) plus plenty of water; avoid straining and lingering on the toilet; warm sitz baths
  • Short course (7 days or less) of topical hydrocortisone or a topical anesthetic (lidocaine) for symptoms; longer steroid use thins the skin

Internal hemorrhoids that fail conservative care (grade I–III)

  • Rubber band ligation is the most effective office procedure; the band goes above the dentate line (painless area)
  • Avoid banding with anticoagulants or P2Y12 inhibitors (e.g., clopidogrel), portal hypertension, or immunocompromise → sclerotherapy instead
  • Pain, fever, and urinary retention after banding → think pelvic sepsis → urgent evaluation
  • Surgical hemorrhoidectomy for grade IV, mixed internal and external disease, or failed banding

Thrombosed external hemorrhoid

  • Seen within about 72 hours with severe pain → excision under local anesthesia (better than simple incision and clot evacuation, which tends to recur)
  • After 72 hours or already improving → conservative care (sitz baths, NSAIDs, soft stools); it resolves over 7–10 days
  • Never band external hemorrhoids
osmosis Osmosis
Question 1
A 38-year-old man with chronic constipation reports bright red blood on the toilet paper after bowel movements for 3 weeks. He has no anal pain. External inspection and digital rectal examination are normal. This patient's bleeding source most likely lies in which of the following locations?
A
Above the dentate line, in mucosa with visceral innervation
B
Below the dentate line, in anoderm with somatic innervation
Hint:
Lesions below the dentate line (external hemorrhoids, fissures) have somatic pain fibers, so they hurt; this patient has no pain.
C
In an obstructed anal crypt gland
Hint:
An infected anal crypt gland causes an abscess with constant, throbbing pain and a tender mass.
D
In the perianal skin lateral to the anal verge
Hint:
Perianal skin lesions are visible on inspection and are innervated by somatic nerves.
E
In the posterior midline anoderm
Hint:
A posterior midline fissure causes tearing pain with each bowel movement that lasts for hours.
Question 1 Explanation: 
Painless bright red blood per rectum in a patient who strains is the classic picture of internal hemorrhoids. Internal hemorrhoids arise above the dentate line, where the lining is innervated by visceral nerves that do not sense pain, so they bleed without hurting and cannot be felt on a digital rectal exam unless thrombosed. External hemorrhoids sit below the dentate line, where somatic nerves make them painful when they clot. Constipation and straining are the main risk factors.
Question 2
A 29-year-old woman reports painless bright red blood on the toilet paper after straining for the past month. She has no weight loss, change in bowel habits, or family history of colorectal cancer or inflammatory bowel disease. Hemoglobin is normal. External inspection and digital rectal examination are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
A
Anoscopy
B
Barium enema
Hint:
Barium enema is not used to evaluate bright red rectal bleeding and cannot see the anal canal well.
C
Colonoscopy
Hint:
Colonoscopy is for hemorrhoidal bleeding at age 40 or older, or at any age with red flags such as anemia, atypical bleeding, or a family history; she has none.
D
CT of the abdomen and pelvis
Hint:
CT does not show internal hemorrhoids and adds radiation without benefit.
E
Fecal immunochemical test
Hint:
A stool blood test is a screening test for average-risk adults; it adds nothing when visible bleeding is already present.
Question 2 Explanation: 
Internal hemorrhoids are the most common cause of painless bright red blood per rectum, but they cannot be felt on a digital rectal exam unless thrombosed. Anoscopy is the best way to see them. Colonoscopy is added for hemorrhoidal bleeding at age 40 or older, or at any age with iron deficiency anemia, atypical bleeding, a change in bowel habits, a personal or family history of colorectal cancer or inflammatory bowel disease, or bleeding that persists after treatment.
Question 3
A 34-year-old man has intermittent painless bright red blood on the toilet paper. He eats a low-fiber diet, strains often, and reads on the toilet. Anoscopy shows grade I internal hemorrhoids. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
A
Hemorrhoidectomy
Hint:
Surgery is reserved for grade IV, mixed internal and external disease, or hemorrhoids that fail office procedures.
B
Increased dietary fiber and water intake
C
Infrared coagulation
Hint:
Office procedures such as infrared coagulation are for hemorrhoids that remain symptomatic despite conservative care.
D
Rubber band ligation
Hint:
Banding is the most effective office procedure, but only after conservative care fails.
E
Topical hydrocortisone for 4 weeks
Hint:
Topical steroids are limited to 7 days or less because longer use thins the perianal skin.
Question 3 Explanation: 
Every patient with symptomatic hemorrhoids starts with conservative care: 20 to 30 grams of fiber a day (such as psyllium) with plenty of water, avoiding straining and long sitting on the toilet, and sitz baths. A short course (7 days or less) of a topical steroid or anesthetic can ease symptoms. Office procedures and surgery are added only when this fails.
Question 4
A 47-year-old woman has painless bleeding with bowel movements and tissue that prolapses with straining and then goes back in on its own. She has followed a high-fiber diet for 3 months without improvement. Colonoscopy last month was normal. Anoscopy confirms grade II internal hemorrhoids. She takes no medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A
Excisional hemorrhoidectomy
Hint:
Surgical hemorrhoidectomy is for grade IV disease, mixed internal and external disease, or failure of banding.
B
Oral metronidazole
Hint:
Antibiotics have no role in uncomplicated hemorrhoids.
C
Rubber band ligation
D
Topical hydrocortisone for 4 weeks
Hint:
Topical steroids are limited to 7 days or less and do not fix prolapsing hemorrhoids.
E
Topical nitroglycerin
Hint:
Topical nitroglycerin relaxes the internal sphincter and is used for anal fissures.
Question 4 Explanation: 
Rubber band ligation is the most effective office procedure for grade I to III internal hemorrhoids that remain symptomatic despite fiber and lifestyle changes. The band is placed above the dentate line, where there are no pain fibers, and the hemorrhoid sloughs off in about a week. Hemorrhoidectomy is saved for grade IV disease, mixed internal and external hemorrhoids, or failed banding.
Question 5
A 66-year-old man with atrial fibrillation who takes apixaban has persistent bleeding from grade II internal hemorrhoids despite 3 months of fiber therapy. Colonoscopy 6 months ago was normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A
Excisional hemorrhoidectomy
Hint:
Surgery is not needed for grade II disease and carries more bleeding risk in an anticoagulated patient.
B
Rubber band ligation
Hint:
Banding is avoided in patients on anticoagulants because of the risk of serious delayed bleeding when the band falls off.
C
Sclerotherapy
D
Stapled hemorrhoidopexy
Hint:
Stapled hemorrhoidopexy is an operating room procedure for larger prolapsing hemorrhoids, not a first office option.
E
Topical hydrocortisone for 4 weeks
Hint:
Topical steroids are limited to 7 days or less and do not control ongoing bleeding.
Question 5 Explanation: 
Rubber band ligation is the usual office procedure for grade I to III internal hemorrhoids that fail conservative care, but it is avoided in patients on anticoagulants or P2Y12 inhibitors (such as clopidogrel), in portal hypertension, and in immunocompromised patients because of delayed bleeding and infection risk. Sclerotherapy is the preferred office treatment in these patients.
Question 6
A 31-year-old woman has had severe perianal pain for 24 hours after a long car trip. Examination shows a tense, tender, purplish 1.5-cm lump at the anal verge below the dentate line. She asks for the fastest relief. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A
Excision of the thrombosed hemorrhoid under local anesthesia
B
Oral ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
Hint:
Antibiotics do not treat a clotted external hemorrhoid; there is no abscess.
C
Rubber band ligation
Hint:
External hemorrhoids are below the dentate line, where banding would be extremely painful; never band them.
D
Sclerotherapy
Hint:
Sclerotherapy is used for internal hemorrhoids above the dentate line.
E
Topical nitroglycerin
Hint:
Topical nitroglycerin is a treatment for anal fissure.
Question 6 Explanation: 
This is a thrombosed external hemorrhoid. When the patient is seen within about 72 hours of onset with severe pain, excision of the thrombosed hemorrhoid under local anesthesia gives the fastest relief; full excision is preferred over simple incision and clot drainage, which tends to recur. After about 72 hours the clot is organizing and the pain is easing, so conservative care (sitz baths, NSAIDs, soft stools) is preferred.
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References: Merck Manual · UpToDate

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